Tipsy
Respected Member
Yes, I have. If there is no present reason showing how allowing same sex marriage 'provides for the general welfare' of society it is a legislative abuse for it to be passed. My argument is that it is an abuse to 1) ban it and 2) allow it. If either of these are done it is a complete abuse of legislative power. This is because, even with the broadest interpretation of the Constitution, the power to create same sex marriage is not in their power. Since it is unconstitional for same sex marriage to be banned or allowed (because the abuse of legislative powers is unconstitutional), same sex marriage cannot constitutionally exist.Big-Fat-Homo said:Yes, but you've yet to prove that it's unconstitutional to allow it.
Also, if you are admitting that there was complete equality before C-38 was passed (and same sex marriage legalized in Canada), then the reasoning from which C-38 is wrong.
And just to clear it up because I am slightly confused at the moment, are you or are you not saying that homosexuals have the exact same rights as heterosexuals when same sex marriage is not legalized?